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Thursday, June 20, 2013

2.21

Part a.) Since the product of two measurable functions is measurable, it suffices to show that f(x-y) and g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)} are each measurable in \mathbb{R}^{2d}.

Conveniently, since f is measurable on \mathbb{R}^d, it follows directly from Proposition 3.9 (p. 86) that f(x-y) is measurable on \mathbb{R}^{2d}. Also, since g is measurable on \mathbb{R}^d, it follows directly from Corollary 3.7 (P. 85) that g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)} is measurable on \mathbb{R}^{2d}.

Part b.) Since we know f(x-y)g(y) is measurable, by Tonelli's Theorem we have: \int_{\mathbb{R}^{2d}} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}d(x,y) \hspace{0.25cm}=\hspace{0.25cm} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy ...and from the translation invariance of integration we get: \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \ldots \ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| dy = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} < \infty ...since both f and g are L^1.

Part c.) Since f(x-y)g(y) was just shown to be integrable, it follows directly from Fubini's Theorem that for almost every x \in \mathbb{R}^d, : \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy < \infty I.e., the convolution: (f*g)(x) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy ...is well-defined for a.e. x \in \mathbb{R}^d.

Part d.) Observe that: \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)\hspace{0.1cm}| dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}\Bigg| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx ...which, by part b, we see: ||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)|\hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \ldots \ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} Now, if f and g are positive functions, |f(x-y)g(y)|=f(x-y)g(y), so equality of ||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} and ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} follows (again) directly from part b.

Part e.) Let's first check that \hat{f}(\xi) is bounded. Recall that |e^{i \theta}| = 1 \hspace{0.25cm} \forall \theta \in \mathbb{R}. Then, observe: |\hat{f}(\xi)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) e^{-2\pi i x \xi} \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)||e^{-2\pi i x \xi}| \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)|\hspace{0.1cm}dx = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} Thus, \hat{f}(\xi) is bounded.

Now, let's see if \hat{f}(\xi) is continuous. We begin by observing: |\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) \big(e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \xi} - e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \mu}\big) \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx Note that since f is L^1(\mathbb{R}^d, for any \epsilon > 0 we have that there exists an R > 0 such that: \int_{B_R^c} |f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \frac{\epsilon}{4} (Where B_R is a ball of radius R centered the origin.)

Now, since \big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \leq 2, we see: \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx From here, require: ||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} Now, it should be clear from the Cauchy Schwartz inequality that on B_R: |x \cdot (\xi - \mu)| \leq R \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} Therefore, plugging it all in, we finally see: \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu)) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu))\big|\Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) \big| \Big] \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} + \frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}{2 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} = \frac{\epsilon}{2} Thus, we've just shown, for a sufficiently large R > 0: ||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow \hspace{0.25cm} |\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| \leq \ldots \ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq \ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon}{2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2} = \epsilon ...as desired.

Finally we want to show: \widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi) Proceed by directly applying Fubini's Theorem: \widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \Bigg] e^{-2\pi i \xi x} \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \ldots \ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm} e^{-2\pi i \xi (x - y + y)} dy \Bigg] \hspace{0.1cm} dx \ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx \ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy \ldots = \hat{f}(\xi)\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y} \hspace{0.1cm} dy = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi) ...as desired.

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