Part a.) Since the product of two measurable functions is measurable, it suffices to show that f(x-y) and g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)} are each measurable in \mathbb{R}^{2d}.
Conveniently, since f is measurable on \mathbb{R}^d, it follows directly from Proposition 3.9 (p. 86) that f(x-y) is measurable on \mathbb{R}^{2d}. Also, since g is measurable on \mathbb{R}^d, it follows directly from Corollary 3.7 (P. 85) that g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)} is measurable on \mathbb{R}^{2d}.
Part b.) Since we know f(x-y)g(y) is measurable, by Tonelli's Theorem we have:
\int_{\mathbb{R}^{2d}} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}d(x,y) \hspace{0.25cm}=\hspace{0.25cm} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy
...and from the translation invariance of integration we get:
\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \ldots
\ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| dy = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} < \infty
...since both f and g are L^1.
Part c.) Since f(x-y)g(y) was just shown to be integrable, it follows directly from Fubini's Theorem that for almost every x \in \mathbb{R}^d, :
\int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy < \infty
I.e., the convolution:
(f*g)(x) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy
...is well-defined for a.e. x \in \mathbb{R}^d.
Part d.) Observe that:
\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)\hspace{0.1cm}| dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}\Bigg| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx
...which, by part b, we see:
||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)|\hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \ldots
\ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}
Now, if f and g are positive functions, |f(x-y)g(y)|=f(x-y)g(y), so equality of ||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} and ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} follows (again) directly from part b.
Part e.) Let's first check that \hat{f}(\xi) is bounded. Recall that |e^{i \theta}| = 1 \hspace{0.25cm} \forall \theta \in \mathbb{R}. Then, observe:
|\hat{f}(\xi)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) e^{-2\pi i x \xi} \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)||e^{-2\pi i x \xi}| \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)|\hspace{0.1cm}dx = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}
Thus, \hat{f}(\xi) is bounded.
Now, let's see if \hat{f}(\xi) is continuous. We begin by observing:
|\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) \big(e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \xi} - e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \mu}\big) \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx
Note that since f is L^1(\mathbb{R}^d, for any \epsilon > 0 we have that there exists an R > 0 such that:
\int_{B_R^c} |f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \frac{\epsilon}{4}
(Where B_R is a ball of radius R centered the origin.)
Now, since \big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \leq 2, we see:
\int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx
From here, require:
||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}
Now, it should be clear from the Cauchy Schwartz inequality that on B_R:
|x \cdot (\xi - \mu)| \leq R \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}
Therefore, plugging it all in, we finally see:
\int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots
\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu)) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu))\big|\Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx
\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) \big| \Big]
\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} + \frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}{2 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} = \frac{\epsilon}{2}
Thus, we've just shown, for a sufficiently large R > 0:
||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow \hspace{0.25cm} |\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| \leq \ldots
\ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq
\ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon}{2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2} = \epsilon
...as desired.
Finally
we want to show:
\widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi)
Proceed by directly applying Fubini's Theorem:
\widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \Bigg] e^{-2\pi i \xi x} \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \ldots
\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm} e^{-2\pi i \xi (x - y + y)} dy \Bigg] \hspace{0.1cm} dx
\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx
\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy
\ldots = \hat{f}(\xi)\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y} \hspace{0.1cm} dy = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi)
...as desired.
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