Part a.) Since the product of two measurable functions is measurable, it suffices to show that $f(x-y)$ and $g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)}$ are each measurable in $\mathbb{R}^{2d}$.
Conveniently, since $f$ is measurable on $\mathbb{R}^d$, it follows directly from Proposition 3.9 (p. 86) that $f(x-y)$ is measurable on $\mathbb{R}^{2d}$. Also, since $g$ is measurable on $\mathbb{R}^d$, it follows directly from Corollary 3.7 (P. 85) that $g(y)\chi_{\mathbb{R}^d(x)}$ is measurable on $\mathbb{R}^{2d}$.
Part b.) Since we know $f(x-y)g(y)$ is measurable, by Tonelli's Theorem we have:
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^{2d}} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}d(x,y) \hspace{0.25cm}=\hspace{0.25cm} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy$$
...and from the translation invariance of integration we get:
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)g(y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x-y)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx\hspace{0.1cm}dy = \ldots$$
$$\ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |g(y)| dy = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} < \infty$$
...since both $f$ and $g$ are $L^1$.
Part c.) Since $f(x-y)g(y)$ was just shown to be integrable, it follows directly from Fubini's Theorem that for almost every $x \in \mathbb{R}^d$, :
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy < \infty$$
I.e., the convolution:
$$(f*g)(x) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy$$
...is well-defined for a.e. $x \in \mathbb{R}^d$.
Part d.) Observe that:
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)\hspace{0.1cm}| dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}f(x-y)g(y)\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}\Bigg| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots$$
$$\ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx$$
...which, by part b, we see:
$$||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)} = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |(f*g)(x)|\hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x-y)g(y)|\hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \ldots$$
$$\ldots = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}$$
Now, if $f$ and $g$ are positive functions, $|f(x-y)g(y)|=f(x-y)g(y)$, so equality of $||(f*g)||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}$ and $||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}||g||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}$ follows (again) directly from part b.
Part e.) Let's first check that $\hat{f}(\xi)$ is bounded. Recall that $|e^{i \theta}| = 1 \hspace{0.25cm} \forall \theta \in \mathbb{R}$. Then, observe:
$$|\hat{f}(\xi)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) e^{-2\pi i x \xi} \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots $$
$$ \ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)||e^{-2\pi i x \xi}| \hspace{0.1cm}dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)|\hspace{0.1cm}dx = ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}$$
Thus, $\hat{f}(\xi)$ is bounded.
Now, let's see if $\hat{f}(\xi)$ is continuous. We begin by observing:
$$|\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| = \Bigg| \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x) \big(e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \xi} - e^{-2\pi i x \cdot \mu}\big) \hspace{0.1cm} dx \Bigg| \leq \ldots $$
$$\ldots \leq \int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx$$
Note that since $f$ is $L^1(\mathbb{R}^d$, for any $\epsilon > 0$ we have that there exists an $R > 0$ such that:
$$ \int_{B_R^c} |f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm} dx \leq \frac{\epsilon}{4}$$
(Where $B_R$ is a ball of radius $R$ centered the origin.)
Now, since $\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \leq 2$, we see:
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^d}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots$$
$$\ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx$$
From here, require:
$$||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}$$
Now, it should be clear from the Cauchy Schwartz inequality that on $B_R$:
$$ |x \cdot (\xi - \mu)| \leq R \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}$$
Therefore, plugging it all in, we finally see:
$$\int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \leq \ldots$$
$$\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu)) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin(2\pi x \cdot (\xi - \mu))\big|\Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx$$
$$\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\big| \cos\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) - 1 \big| + \big|\sin\big(\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}\big) \big| \Big]$$
$$\leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)| \Big[\frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} + \frac{\epsilon}{4 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \Big] \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq \ldots$$
$$\ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}}{2 ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} = \frac{\epsilon}{2}$$
Thus, we've just shown, for a sufficiently large $R > 0$:
$$||\xi - \mu|| < \delta = \frac{\epsilon}{8 \pi R ||f||_{L^1(\mathbb{R}^d)}} \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow \hspace{0.25cm} |\hat{f}(\xi) - \hat{f}(\mu)| \leq \ldots$$
$$\ldots \leq \int_{B_R}|f(x)|\big|e^{-2\pi i x \cdot (\xi - \mu)} - 1 \big| \hspace{0.1cm}dx + 2\int_{B_R^c}|f(x)| \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.25cm} \leq$$
$$\ldots \leq \frac{\epsilon}{2} + \frac{\epsilon}{2} = \epsilon$$
...as desired.
Finally
we want to show:
$$\widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi)$$
Proceed by directly applying Fubini's Theorem:
$$\widehat{(f*g)}(\xi) = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \Bigg] e^{-2\pi i \xi x} \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \ldots$$
$$\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Bigg[\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} f(x-y)g(y) \hspace{0.1cm} e^{-2\pi i \xi (x - y + y)} dy \Bigg] \hspace{0.1cm} dx$$
$$\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx$$
$$\ldots = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y}\Big) \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \Big(f(x-y) e^{-2\pi i \xi (x-y)} \Big) \hspace{0.1cm}dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy$$
$$\ldots = \hat{f}(\xi)\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} g(y) e^{-2\pi i \xi y} \hspace{0.1cm} dy = \hat{f}(\xi)\hat{g}(\xi)$$
...as desired.
In preparation for a qualifying exam in Real Analysis, during the summer of 2013, I plan to solve as many problems from Stein & Shakarchi's Real Analysis text as I can. Please feel free to comment or correct me as I make my way through this.
Showing posts with label Tonelli. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Tonelli. Show all posts
Thursday, June 20, 2013
Tuesday, June 18, 2013
2.19
First, noting the definition of our set $E_\alpha$:
$$E_\alpha = \big\lbrace x \in \mathbb{R}^d \hspace{0.25cm} \big| \hspace{0.25cm} |f(x)| > \alpha \big\rbrace$$
Observe that $E_\alpha$ is certainly measurable. Now, consider the integration:
$$ \int_0^\infty m(E_\alpha) \hspace{0.1cm} d\alpha = \int_0^\infty \int_{E_\alpha} dx \hspace{0.1cm} d\alpha$$
Since constant functions over measurable sets are measurable, we can apply Tonelli's Theorem to see:
$$\int_0^\infty \int_{E_\alpha} dx \hspace{0.1cm} d\alpha = \int_{E_\alpha} \int_0^\infty d\alpha \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_0^\infty \chi_{[0,|f(x)|)} d\alpha \hspace{0.1cm} dx$$
Next, notice from the definition of $E_\alpha$ that:
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^d} \int_0^\infty \chi_{[0,|f(x)|)} d\alpha \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} m\big([0,|f(x)|)\big) \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{\mathbb{R}^d} |f(x)| dx$$
...as desired.
Wednesday, June 12, 2013
2.5
Part a.) By the definition of the infimum, we have $\forall \epsilon > 0 \hspace{0.25cm} \exists z \in F$ such that $|x - z| < \delta(x) + \epsilon$. Thus,
$$\delta(y) \leq |y - z| \leq |y - x| + |x - z| \leq |y - x| + \delta(x) + \epsilon$$
Thus, since $\epsilon$ can be arbitrarily small, we have:
$$\delta(y) - \delta(x) \leq |y-x|$$
Now, repeat this argument for $y$, and we have:
$$-|y-x| \leq \delta(y) - \delta(x) \leq |y-x| \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow |\delta(y) - \delta(x)| \leq |y-x|$$
Part b.) First observe that if $y \in F$, then $\delta(y) = 0$. Then, certainly: $$ I(x) = \int_F \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy + \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy = \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy$$ Next, notice that since $F^c$ is an open set, for any $x \in F^c$ we know $\exists r > 0$ such that $B_{r}(x) \subset F^c$, and for any $y \in B_{r}(x)$, $\exists M > 0$ such that $\delta(y) \geq M$. (We can always do this by simply choosing $r$ small enough to fit the ball in $F^c$, then using the ball of radius $\frac{r}{2}$.) Therefore, we have: $$ \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \geq M \int_{B_{r}(x)} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dy$$ Now, just observe that we can just center $x$ at the origin, and our calculation becomes: $$M\int_{B_{r}(x)} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dy = \lim_{b \to 0} \int_b^\infty \frac{1}{y^2}dy = \infty$$ ...as desired.
Part c.) As the hint prescribes, if we can show $I(x)$ is $L^1(F)$ then we have that $I$ must be almost everywhere finite. Indeed, first notice (from part b) that: $$\int_F I(x) dx = \int_{F} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{F} \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx$$ Before I can use Tonelli's Theorem to swap the limits of integration, I need to first check that the function: $$h(x,y) = \chi_{(F \times F^c)}\frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2}$$ ...is measurable. Certainly, $\chi_{(F \times F^c)}$ is measurable since $F$ and $F^c$ are Borel. Next notice that the sets: $$ \lbrace y \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25cm} | \hspace{0.25cm} \delta(y) > \alpha \rbrace $$ are measurable, since they're just the union of $F$ and countably-many closed intervals. Lastly, the function $\frac{1}{|x-y|^2}$ is obviously measurable since it's continuous almost everywhere. Thus, since the product of measurable functions are measurable, we have $h(x,y)$ is measurable.
Thus, it follows from Tonelli's theorem that: $$\int_{F} \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{F^c} \int_{F} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy = \ldots$$ $$ \ldots = \int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy $$ Now, this part I found to be kind of tricky (at first). Observe that: $$F \subset \lbrace x \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25cm} | \hspace{0.25cm} |x - y| \geq \delta(y) \rbrace$$ Then we have: $$\int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \leq 2\int_{\delta(y)}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2} dx = \frac{2}{\delta(y)}$$ Finally, we have: $$\int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy \leq 2\int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{\delta(y)}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy \leq 2 m(F^c) $$ ...and since $m(F^c) < \infty$ we have $I$ must be $L^1 (F)$.
Part b.) First observe that if $y \in F$, then $\delta(y) = 0$. Then, certainly: $$ I(x) = \int_F \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy + \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy = \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy$$ Next, notice that since $F^c$ is an open set, for any $x \in F^c$ we know $\exists r > 0$ such that $B_{r}(x) \subset F^c$, and for any $y \in B_{r}(x)$, $\exists M > 0$ such that $\delta(y) \geq M$. (We can always do this by simply choosing $r$ small enough to fit the ball in $F^c$, then using the ball of radius $\frac{r}{2}$.) Therefore, we have: $$ \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \geq M \int_{B_{r}(x)} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dy$$ Now, just observe that we can just center $x$ at the origin, and our calculation becomes: $$M\int_{B_{r}(x)} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dy = \lim_{b \to 0} \int_b^\infty \frac{1}{y^2}dy = \infty$$ ...as desired.
Part c.) As the hint prescribes, if we can show $I(x)$ is $L^1(F)$ then we have that $I$ must be almost everywhere finite. Indeed, first notice (from part b) that: $$\int_F I(x) dx = \int_{F} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{F} \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx$$ Before I can use Tonelli's Theorem to swap the limits of integration, I need to first check that the function: $$h(x,y) = \chi_{(F \times F^c)}\frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2}$$ ...is measurable. Certainly, $\chi_{(F \times F^c)}$ is measurable since $F$ and $F^c$ are Borel. Next notice that the sets: $$ \lbrace y \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25cm} | \hspace{0.25cm} \delta(y) > \alpha \rbrace $$ are measurable, since they're just the union of $F$ and countably-many closed intervals. Lastly, the function $\frac{1}{|x-y|^2}$ is obviously measurable since it's continuous almost everywhere. Thus, since the product of measurable functions are measurable, we have $h(x,y)$ is measurable.
Thus, it follows from Tonelli's theorem that: $$\int_{F} \int_{F^c} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dy \hspace{0.1cm} dx = \int_{F^c} \int_{F} \frac{\delta(y)}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy = \ldots$$ $$ \ldots = \int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy $$ Now, this part I found to be kind of tricky (at first). Observe that: $$F \subset \lbrace x \in \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25cm} | \hspace{0.25cm} |x - y| \geq \delta(y) \rbrace$$ Then we have: $$\int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \leq 2\int_{\delta(y)}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2} dx = \frac{2}{\delta(y)}$$ Finally, we have: $$\int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{F} \frac{1}{|x-y|^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy \leq 2\int_{F^c} \delta(y) \int_{\delta(y)}^\infty \frac{1}{x^2} dx \hspace{0.1cm} dy \leq 2 m(F^c) $$ ...and since $m(F^c) < \infty$ we have $I$ must be $L^1 (F)$.
Monday, June 10, 2013
2.4
It suffices to consider $f$ to be a non-negative $L^1$ function. It's not at first apparent that $g(x)$ is an $L^1$ function. First, define the set:
$$T(b) = \lbrace (x,t) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} \hspace{0.25cm} \big|\hspace{0.25cm} 0 < x \leq t, \hspace{0.25cm} x \leq t \leq b \rbrace$$
(It's just the triangle formed by taking the square $[0,b] \times [0,b]$, bisecting it with the line $x = t$, and taking the top half.) Next, define the function:
$$F(x,t) = \frac{f(t)}{t} \chi_{T(b)}$$
Certainly, $F$ is measurable, since $\chi_{T(b)}$, $f$, and $\frac{1}{t}$ are measurable functions. Next, observe that:
$$\int_{[0,b]} g(x) dx = \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[x,b]} \frac{f(t)}{t}dtdx = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{f(t)}{t} \chi_{T(b)} dt dx $$ From here, Tonelli's Theorem gives, that since $F$ is measurable: $$ \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[x,b]} \frac{f(t)}{t}dtdx = \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[0,t]} \frac{f(t)}{t} dx dt = \int_{[0,b]} f(t) dt$$ Thus, since $f \in L^1$, we have: $$\int_{[0,b]} g(x) dx = \int_{[0,b]} f(t) dt < \infty \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow g \in L^1$$ ...as desired.
$$\int_{[0,b]} g(x) dx = \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[x,b]} \frac{f(t)}{t}dtdx = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \frac{f(t)}{t} \chi_{T(b)} dt dx $$ From here, Tonelli's Theorem gives, that since $F$ is measurable: $$ \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[x,b]} \frac{f(t)}{t}dtdx = \int_{[0,b]} \int_{[0,t]} \frac{f(t)}{t} dx dt = \int_{[0,b]} f(t) dt$$ Thus, since $f \in L^1$, we have: $$\int_{[0,b]} g(x) dx = \int_{[0,b]} f(t) dt < \infty \hspace{0.25cm} \Rightarrow g \in L^1$$ ...as desired.
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