Part a.) Choose an arbitrary x \in [0,1]. Clearly, the sequence \lbrace f_n(x) \rbrace is monotonic-decreasing, and bounded below by 0. Thus, \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(x) exists \forall x \in [0,1]. Simply define f to be the point-wise limit of f_n.
Part b.) Recall from the construction of \hat{\mathcal{C}} that:
[0,1] \cap \hat{\mathcal{C}}^c = \bigcup_{k=1}^{\infty} \bigcup_{n = 1}^{3^{k-1}-1} O_n^k
Where the length of the open intervals O_n^k depend on how we construct our specific \hat{\mathcal{C}}. Let's choose x \in \hat{\mathcal{C}} arbitrarily. Define: S = \lbrace x \in [0,1] | x = \frac{b_{n,k} - a_{n,k}}{2}, O_n^k = (a_{n,k}, b_{n,k}) \rbrace
Notice, much like what we observed in (1.9), \forall r > 0, B_r(x) \cap S \neq \emptyset. Construct a sequence from S in this fashion. (I.e. \forall n choose any x_n \in B_{\frac{1}{n}}(x) \cap S.)
Certainly, we observe x_n \to x as n \to \infty. However, by construction of f, notice f(x_n) = 0 for every n. Thus, \lim_{n \to \infty} f(x_n) = 0 \neq f(x) = 1. Therefore f must be discontinuous \forall x \in \hat{\mathcal{C}}.
Finally, the author wants you to observe that since f_n is both Riemann integrable \forall n, and decreasing, that the sequence \lbrace \int f_n \rbrace is both decreasing and bounded below (by, say, 0). Therefore \lim_{n \to \infty} \int f_n exists. However, we have \int \lim_{n \to \infty} f_n = \int f, but f clearly isn't Reimann integrable, since it's discontinuous on \hat{\mathcal{C}}, a set with positive measure. Thus, the point-wise limit of a sequence of Riemann-integrable functions isn't necessarily Riemann integrable in general.
Isn't it '+' in the set S instead of '-',
ReplyDeletei.e. b_nk '+' a_nk instead of b_nk '-' a_nk
Isn't it '+' in the set S instead of '-',
ReplyDeletei.e. b_nk '+' a_nk instead of b_nk '-' a_nk